The magnetic moment vectors μsand μl associated with the intrinsic spin angular momentum S and orbital angular momentum l, respectively, of an electron are predicted by quantum theory (and verified experimentally to a high accuracy) to be given by:
μs= –(e/m) S,
μl = –(e/2m)l
Which of these relations is in accordance with the result expected classically? Outline the derivation of the classical result.
