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If sin^−1 x = y, then (A) 0 ≤ y ≤π (B) −π/2 ≤ y ≤ π/2

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asked Jan 13, 2018 in Mathematics by sforrest072 (157,439 points)
edited Mar 6, 2018 by faiz

If sin⁻¹ x = y, then

(A) 0 ≤y ≤ π (B) −π/2 ≤ y ≤ π/2
(C) 0 < y < π (D) −π/2 < y < π/2

1 Answer

answered Jan 13, 2018 by mdsamim (213,225 points)
selected Jan 13, 2018 by sforrest072

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If sin^−1 x = y, then (A) 0 ≤ y ≤π (B) −π/2 ≤ y ≤ π/2

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