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sin^−1(1−x)−2sin^−1x=π/2 , then x is equal to

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asked Jan 15, 2018 in Mathematics by sforrest072 (157,439 points) ● 63 ● 448 ● 1262
edited Mar 6, 2018 by faiz

sin−1(1−x)−2sin−1x=π/2 , then x is equal to

(A) 0,1/2     (B) 1,1/2     (C) 0          (D) 1/2

1 Answer

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answered Jan 15, 2018 by mdsamim (213,225 points) ● 5 ● 10 ● 21
selected Jan 15, 2018 by sforrest072
 
Best answer

But x=1/2 does not satisfy the given equation.
∴x=0 is the solution of the given equation.

The correct answer is C.

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