If a polynomial p(x)=Ax^3+Bx^2+Cx+D vanishes at x=a-d,a,a+d, then prove that a^2+(D/aA)>0.

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asked Aug 17, 2016 in Mathematics by Rahul Roy (7,895 points) 33 108 286

1 Answer

+3 votes
answered Aug 17, 2016 by vikash (21,277 points) 4 19 70
selected Aug 18, 2016 by Rahul Roy
 
Best answer

We have polynomial p(x)=Ax^3+Bx^2+Cx+D

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